CHRISTIAN LAWYERS FELLOWSHIP OF NIGERIA(CLASFON) ENUGU CAMPUS
&
WINNERS CAMPUS FELLOWSHIP(WCF)
MCQ MOCK TEST 2017.
TIME ALLOTED: 1 HOUR
INSTRUCTIONS: PLEASE TICK THE RIGHT ANSWERS ACCORDINGLY. ALSO FILL IN YOUR DETAILS IN THE SPACE PROVIDED AT THE END OF THE QUESTIONS. ENJOY!
CRIMINAL LITIGATION
1. At the trial of Dotun Alawe, the prosecution sought to tender in evidence a statement allegedly made by the accused. The accused denied making the statement learned defense counsel applied for trial within trial but the judge refused. He rejected the statement on the ground that it was not confirmed by a superior police officer.
In the circumstance:
a. THE JUDGE WRONGLY REJECTED THE STATEMENT
b. The judge rightly rejected the statement
c. The statement was admissible only upon the fulfillment of a particular condition
2. The right thing the judge should have done in the circumstance was:
a. TO ADMIT THE STATEMENT AND CONSIDER THE WEIGHT TO ATTACH TO IT LATER
b. Order trial within trial
c. Adjourn the matter to take oral evidence
d. None of the above
3. From the above scenario when would it have been appropriate to order a trial within trial?
a. If the accused had retracted his statement
b. IF THE ACCUSED DENIED THE VOLUNTARINESS OF THE STATEMENT
c. If the witness is perceived to be lying
d. If the prosecutor is biased
4. Had the court ordered trial within trial, who would have started giving evidence?
a. The accused
b. The court
c. THE PROSECUTOR
d. The witnesses
That you Ogologo Nwanze on the 10th day of July, 2009 at No. 20 old Suleja, Abuja Road, Minna in the Minna Magisterial District had unlawful carnal knowledge and assaulted Miss Hotlegs and thereby commited an offence punishable under ________
5. What possible objection will you raise of the above charge?
a. Bad for misjoinder of offences
b. Bad for misjoinder of offenders
c. BAD FOR DUPLICITY
d. Bad for ambiguity
6. The charge would be laid under
a. The Criminal Code Act
b. The Criminal Code Law
c. THE PENAL CODE
d. The Penal Code Act
7. Who is to draft the charge above?
a. THE PRESIDING MAGISTRATE
b. The police prosecutor
c. The state counsel
d. The investigating police officer
8. Before a charge is drafted in the magistrate court in the North, the accused person is brought to court by:
a. A F.I.R (FIRST INFORMATION REPORT)
b. Information signed by the police
c. Originating summons
d. None of the above
After the conviction of the accused person for stealing his counsel informed the court:
My Lord, the accused person is a first time offender. He is the only surviving son of his parents who are aged 75 and 90 years and he is responsible for their sustenance. I urge your Lordship to tamper justice with mercy.
9. The above statement is meant to:
a. Forestall sentence
b. MITIGATE SENTENCE
c. Alter the conviction
d. Reduce the imprisonment to fine
10. Failure of court to call for this statement would:
a. Nullify the trial and conviction
b. Nullify the conviction only
c. Nullify the sentence alone
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
11. At the stage when the statement is made, the right term to use to describe the offender is:
a. Accused person
b. Accused/applicant
c. CONVICT
d. Offender
Adam a cashier at Magic Bank was tried, convicted and sentenced to 6 months imprisonment with an option of ₦100 fine on a count of stealing One Million Naira (1,000,000.00) belonging to a customer named Branden. Magic Bank was also ordered in the judgment to refund One hundred thousand naira (₦100,000.00) to Mr. Branden. (The offence of stealing is punishable with 7 years imprisonment).
12. Which of the following parties cannot appeal against the judgment?
a. Magic Bank
b. The prosecutor
c. BRANDEN
d. Adam
13. When can a person who is neither the prosecutor nor the accused appeal as of right in a criminal case?
a. When the punishment is life imprisonment
b. When the sentence is only imprisonment
c. When the sentence is both fine and imprisonment
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
Thomas Agary was arrested for being in possession of heroine by NDLEA officials. He was detained for 4 days without access to his lawyer. He was tried before the Chief Magistrate Court, Lagos. At the trial his lawyer tried to apply for bail on his behalf. The bail was turned down. His lawyer intends to apply to the High Court for his release.
14. Assuming the counsel is to contest the jurisdiction of the court, which court has jurisdiction to trial the offence?
a. The state high court
b. THE FEDERAL HIGH COURT
c. The industrial court
d. The magistrate court
15. His detention for 4 days without access to his lawyer and without being informed of the offence against him are in breach of the accused
a. Right to counsel of his choice
b. Right to personal liberty
c. Right to be informed of the case against him and the right to counsel
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
16. The bail application made by the counsel to the accused is referred to as
a. BAIL PENDING TRIAL
b. Bail pending investigation
c. Police bail
d. Bail pending appeal
Nwaogu Chuka who resides at No. 5 Todun Street, Minna reported to the police that his house was broken into and that some of his property were stolen. He told the police that he suspected Ogunde Bello of the theft. A search warrant was executed; the police searched the house and all the occupants including the wife of Bello. Bello, his wife and two sons were subsequently taken to the police station and detained.
17. To apply for police bail of Bello, his wife and sons, the counsel could apply
a. ORALLY
b. By motion on notice
c. By summons
d. By written application
18. A search conducted on a woman by a man is irregular according to:
a. S. 79 CPC
b. S. 80 CPC
c. S. 81 CPC
d. S. 82 CPC
19. A first information report is used to institute criminal matters:
a. IN A MAGISTRATE COURT IN THE NORTH
b. In a magistrate court in the South
c. In a high court in the North
d. In a high court in the South
20. An information for instituting criminal actions in the South contains:
a. A preamble, statement of particulars and particulars of offence
b. A PREAMBLE, STATEMENT OF OFFENCE AND PARTICULARS OF OFFENCE
c. A preamble, statement of offence and ingredients of the offence
d. A preamble, statement of offence and ingredients of the offence
CORPORATE LAW
1. The following are Business Organizations except
a. Companies limited by shares
b. Companies limited by guarantee
c. Sole proprietorship
d. INCORPORATED TRUSTEE
2. What section of the Companies and Allied Matters Act, 2004 provides for promoters
a. Section 68
b. Section 42
c. SECTION 61
d. Section 26
3. Rotation of subsequent directors will require the retirement of how many directors
a. 1/3
b. 2/3
c. 2/4
d. ¾
4. An account can sign any of these CAC forms save for
a. CAC form2
b. CAC form7
c. CAC FORM 4
d. CAC form 2.1
5. The reliefs the court may grant when a petition on ground of unfairly prejudicial and oppressive conduct is brought are the following except-
a. Winding of the company
b. Directing on investigation of the company to be conducted by the Corporate Affairs Commission
c. Appointing Receiver or a Manager of the property of the company
d. ORDER FOR A DERIVATIVE ACTION TO BE BROUGHT BEFORE THE COURT
6. The following persons save for one are employees of a company
a. CHAIRMAN, BOARD OF DIRECTORS
b. Managing Director
c. Company Secretary
d. Chief Financial Officer
7. Who has the power to appoint a person into a casual vacancy upon vacation of a directorship position
a. Members in a General Meeting
b. Subscribers to the memorandum of association
c. BOARD OF DIRECTORS
d. Debenture Holders
8. The following save for one are statutory books to be kept by the company secretary of a private company limited by shares
a. INDEX OF MEMBERS
b. Register of director share holdings
c. Register of charges
d. Register of directors and secretary
9. An action brought under section 303 of the Companies and Allied Matters Act, 2004 shall be instituted through which originating process
a. Writ of summons
b. ORIGINATING SUMMONS
c. Petition
d. Origination application
10. Statutory meetings for public companies are to be held within how many months of incorporation
a. 12months
b. 6MONTHS
c. 18months
11. The exception to prohibition of non-voting and weighted share is applicable to one of the following categories of shareholders under section 143 of CAMA
a. Deferred shareholders
b. Ordinary shareholders
c. Debenture holders
d. PREFERENCE SHAREHOLDERS
12. A resolution transaction in which a healthy institution purchases some or all of the assets of a failed bank or thrift and assumes some or all of the liabilities, including all insured deposits is called
a. A management buy out
b. A PURCHASE AND ASSUMPTION
c. Acquisition
d. Take over
13. One of the following is a clause usually contained in a Memorandum of Association
a. Classes of shares
b. Directors
c. SUBSCRIPTION CLAUSE
d. Voting Clause
14. One of the following will not form the content of a prospectus
a. The amount to be raised by the company from the public offer
b. The purchase price of any property purchased by the company or o be purchased
c. The period of the opening of the subscription lists
D. THE NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE COMPANY’S EMPLOYEES
15. The maximum duration allowed for the first Annual General Meeting of a company to be held is
a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 15 months
d. 18 MONTHS
16. The Chairman of the Investment and Securities Tribunal must be a legal practitioner of
a. 10 years post call
b. 15 YEARS POST CALL
c. 12 years post call
d. 8 years post call
17. Another name for a company listed on the floor of the Stock Exchange is
a. A QUOTED COMPANY
b. A company Limited by Guarantee
c. A listed company
d. A licensed company
18. The type of resolution required to convert shares into stocks under section 150 of CAMA 2004 is
a. ORDINARY RESOLUTION
b. Special resolution
c. Written resolution
d. Oral or Verbal resolution of the Board of Directors
19. The period allowed for the filing of notice of Increase in share capital to CAC is
a. 14 days
b. 15 DAYS
c. 21 days
d. 28 days.
20. A company secretary sought to be removed may be given an option of resignation within
a. 7 clear days
b. 7 WORKING DAYS
c. 7 days
d. 21 clear days
PROPERTY LAW PRACTICE
1. Which of the following is not the feature of a deed?
a. STAMPING
b. Sealing
c. Signing
d. Delivery
2. The ff except one is correct under the registration of instruments applicable in some parts of the country.
a. Registration cures the defect of an instrument
b. The vendor must declare his title
c. The instrument is registered
d. REGISTRATION DOES NOT CURE THE DEFECTS OF AN INSTRUMENT
3. Double probate will be granted in all but one of the ff circumstances
a. THE EXECUTOR IS AN ELDERLY PERSON
b. A minor who was one of the executors now attains majority
c. An executor who was mentally incapacitated recovers from mental condition
d. Executors were more than four at the time of the grant and one of the initial grantees later died
4. An executor can only execute his will
a. Personally
b. By another
c. By acknowledgement
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
5. The advantages of an abstract/epitome of title include the ff except:
a. Assists the purchasers solicitor in preparing a search report
b. Provides a prima facie evidence of any defect in the vendors title
c. DOES NOT HELP THE SOLICITOR MAKE APPROPRIATE REQUISITION
d. Provides at a glance the nature of the vendor’s title
6. Under the property and conveyancing law 1959, in order to ascertain that title is good, the purchaser must insist that the title is deduced for at least
a. 40 years
b. 30 YEARS
c. 12 years
d. 20 years
7. One of the ff statements is not correct
a. FORECLOSURE IS THE EXCLUSIVE REMEDY OF AN EQUITABLE MORTGAGE
b. Both legal and equitable mortgages may apply for foreclosure
c. A legal mortgagee cannot exercise the power of foreclosure without an order of court
d. The court may order the sale of the property where foreclosure is applied for by the mortgagee
8. Where a mortgagee has two or more mortgagee on different properties from the same mortgagor, the mortgagee may refuse to permit the mortgagor to redeem one without the other because of the doctrine of
a. Attornment
b. CONSOLIDATION
c. Fairness
d. None of the above
9. At what stage would Chief Abe Lincoln be required to deduce title to his duplex
a. DURING THE CONTRACT
b. During completion
c. Before completion
d. After completion
10. Which of the ff is false
a. A blind person cannot attest to a will
b. AN ILLITERATE CANNOT ATTEST TO A WILL
c. Chief Abe Lincoln may validly ask his two sons and three daughters to attest the will
d. All of the above
11. In conveyancing parlance, agreement “under hand” is one that is
a. SIGNED, SEALED AND DELIVERED
b. Merely in writing
c. Without consideration
d. Delivered in escrow
12. A purchaser who wishes to pay the balance of the purchase money to the vendors solicitor may protect himself by inserting in the deed of assignment
a. indemnity clause
b. RECEIPT CLAUSE
c. Safe custody and acknowledgment for production clause
d. Consideration
13. One of the ff statements is not true of a deed delivered in escrow
a. Deed is binding from the date of execution
b. The innocent party is entitled to withdraw if condition is not fulfilled
c. DEED IS NOT BINDING UNTIL CONDITION IS FULFILLED
d. A and B above
14. Tolani Jacobs has applied to buy a duplex from the Lagos State Development and Property corporation (LSDPC).he however wants the contract to be subject to the Eko Bank PLC. He obtained the mortgage facility to buy the property on the security of the same property. He wants to move into the house as soon as possible. His application has been approved by LSDPC. Which of the following is true about the above facts:
a. Tolani Jacobs cannot move into the house unless he finishes paying for it
b. Tolani Jacobs cannot use the LSDPC House which he has paid for as security in a mortgage
c. LSDPC WILL BE A SURETY IN THE MORTGAGE AGREEMENT BETWEEN TOLANI JACOB AND EKO BANK PLC
d. Tolani Jacob should know that nemo dat quod non habet
15. The grant to be made in respect of Mr. Tito’s estate is
a. Probate
b. Citation
c. Letters of administration with will annexed
d. LETTERS OF ADMINISTRATION WITHOUT WILL
16. One of the ff documents would not be necessary to process the application
a. MR.TITO’S BIRTH CERTIFICATE
b. Mr. Tito’s death certificate
c. Bank certificate
d. Bond
17. One of the following is not an account to be filed by a personal representatives
a. Inventory
b. Oath of Administration
c. ACCOUNT OF ADMINISTRATION
d. Affidavit in verification
18. All but one is not a procedure/document known to probate practice in Nigeria
a. Citation
b. Caveat
c. DECLARATION
d. Warning
19. One of the ff is not a covenant implied by Okoye conveying as beneficial owner
a. ALL COVENANTS HAVE BEEN PERFORMED
b. Quiet possession
c. Freedom from encumbrance
d. Right to convey
20. Where Chief Edokpaye wants to take benefit of capital appreciation in the property, he should include the ff in the document
a. Rent clause
b. Action to renew clause
c. Parcel clause
d. RENT REVIEW CLAUSE
e.
ETHICS
1. The General Council of the Bar is established by.
a. SECTION 1 LEGAL PRACTITIONERS ACT.
b. Section 1 Legal Education Act.
c. Section 3 Legal Practitioners Act
d. Section 5 Legal Practitioners Act.
e. Section 2 of the Bar Council Act
2. The exclusive rights of a legal practitioner include all the following EXCEPT
a. Only a Lawyer can represent a client in court and prepare relevant court processes.
b. Only a lawyer can make the requisite statutory Declaration of Compliance in incorporation of a company.
c. Only a lawyer can be appointed judge of a superior court not being a Sharia or Customary Court of Appeal.
d. ONLY A LAWYER CAN PREPARE ANY INSTRUMENT CONFERRING OR EXTINGUISHING INTEREST IN LAND.
e. Only a Lawyer can be appointed Attorney General of the Federation.
3. Which of the following duties of the Lawyer is absolute?
a. Duty to take instructions from chambers.
b. Duty to accept litigation brief.
c. Duty of confidentiality.
d. Duty to be properly robed when appearing in any court in Nigeria.
e. NONE OF THE ABOVE.
4. One of the following should not feature in Client interviewing and counselling.
a. Questioning to elicit information.
b. Fair and candid advice.
c. SELECTING THE MOST APPROPRIATE COURSE OF ACTION FOR CLIENT AND ASSURING HIM OF SUCCESS.
d. Suggesting ADR options to Client.
e. None of the above.
5. One of the following is NOT required in Legal Drafting.
a. Good diction and command of language.
b. Proper paragraphing and sentencing.
c. The need to be succinct, clear and unambiguous.
d. The need to faithfully follow accepted precedents, specimens and forms.
e. NONE OF THE ABOVE.
6. Which of the following is regarded as an extraneous part of a statute?
a. Long Title.
b. Preamble.
c. MARGINAL NOTES.
d. Schedule.
e. Interpretation Section.
7. Which of the following is NOT a principle/rule of interpretation of statute?
a. Contra Profentes Rule
b. Exclusion Ulnarius Presumption
c. Beneficial Rule.
d. AUXILIARY RULE.
e. Preservative Rule.
8. Which of the following should not ordinarily feature in a formal Curriculum Vitae:
a. Personal Data.
b. Academic Qualifications.
c. Hobbies.
d. Referees.
e. NONE OF THE ABOVE.
9. Which of the following does NOT feature in a Minutes of Meeting.
a. Commencement.
b. Opening remarks
c. AGENDA FOR DISPUTE.
d. Reports.
e. None of the above.
10. Advocacy practice may involve all the following EXCEPT;
a. Opening Speech.
b. Theory of the Case.
c. Examination of Witnesses.
d. FRONTLOADING.
e. None of the above.
11. Which of the following conducts of a legal practitioner is/are prohibited?
a. Publication of bio-data in legal periodical.
b. Publication in local law journal of his availability to work as an associate with other lawyers.
c. Printing business cards, papers and envelopes with his details.
d. All of the above.
e. NONE OF THE ABOVE.
12. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. A legal practitioner can set up a firm once he has been called to the bar and enrolled at the Supreme Court notwithstanding that he has not undergone pupillage.
b. The Legal practitioner may search for available premises (to be used as law office) through agents, colleagues, advertisement and so on.
c. Finances to be used in setting up the firm may come from personal funds, borrowing, and contributions from family and friends.
d. IN ASSOCIATESHIP, TWO OR MORE LEGAL PRACTITIONERS POOL RESOURCES, SET UP A LAW OFFICE AND SHARE PROFITS AND LIABILITIES ON AGREED TERMS. ALTHOUGH EACH MAY SPECIALIZE IN A SEPARATE FIELD.
e. Sole Proprietorship is the most common type of Legal Practice in Nigeria.
13. All BUT one of the following is a form of management in Law Office;
a. Management by Sole Owner.
b. Management by Associates.
c. MANAGEMENT BY LIQUIDATORS.
d. Management by a Committee of Partners.
e. Management by Experts.
14. All BUT ONE of the following constitute challenges to the use of Information Technology in Law office Management.
a. I.T Illiteracy.
b. I.T Theft, Hacking and Malware Infestation.
c. Epileptic Power Supply.
d. DIFFICULTY IN BACKING UP INFORMATION.
e. None of the above.
15. Which of the following is NOT a Tertiary source of information for Legal Research.
a. Case Citators
b. Digests.
c. FORM BOOKS
d. Index of Laws
e. Index of Cases.
16. Who amongst the following is not a member of the Federal Judicial Service Commission?
a. The Chief Justice of Nigeria.
b. The President of the Court of Appeal.
c. The Attorney General of the Federation.
d. The President of the National Industrial Court.
e. NONE OF THE ABOVE.
17. Which of the following books of account is not mandatory.
a. Cash Book.
b. Ledger.
c. Records of Bills and Notices to Client.
d. JOURNAL.
e. None of the above.
18. Which of the following is not a law office machine.
a. Generator.
b. FRIDGE.
c. Motor Vehicles.
d. Inverter.
e. None of the above.
19. Select the appropriate order of priority in the Legal Profession.
a. A.G. Federation-> A.G State-> SAN-> Life Benchers-> Law Officers-> Persons Entitled to Practice by Warrant.
b. A.G. Federation-> A.G State-> SAN-> Life Benchers-> Law Officers-> Lawyers according to date of call to bar->Persons Entitled to Practice by Warrant.
c. A.G. FEDERATION-> A.G. STATE -> LIFE BENCHERS-> SAN -> LAW OFFICERS -> LAWYERS ACCORDING TO DATE OF CALL TO BAR-> PERSONS ENTITLED TO PRACTICE BY WARRANT.
d. Life Benchers-> A.G. Federation-> A.G State-> San-> Law Officers-> Lawyers according to date of call to bar-> Persons Entitled to Practice by Warrant.
20. Which of the following best describes the effect of the phrase “subject to contract” in letter writing?
a. To show that the application of the letter shall be subject to the provisions of an existing contract made between the parties.
b. TO SHOW THAT THERE IS NO INTENTION TO BE BOUND UNTIL A FORMAL CONTRACT IS DRAWN UP AND DULY EXECUTED BETWEEN THE PARTIES.
c. To show that the letter shall be read alongside an existing contract between the parties.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
CIVIL LITIGATION
Ebi Family sued Abanya Family for a declaration of the exclusive right to the paramount chieftaincy title of Alalali of Alali town in Lagos State. The matter was brought to the court by Lawrence Ati and Jacob Ebi against Tawa Abaya and Joseph Abaya for the Abaya family.
(1.) The claimant will properly be referred to as:
a) “Ebi Family of Alali suing through Lawrence Ati and Jacob Ebi … Claimant”
b) “Ati and Jacob Ebi for the claimant … Claimant”
c) “LAWRENCE ATI AND JACOB EBI SUING FOR THEMSELVES AND ON BEHALF OF EBI FAMILY OF ALALI … CLAIMANT”
d) “Ebi family Alali Town … Claimant”
(2.) The originating process appropriate in this action will be;
a) Originating summons
b) Originating motion
c) Petition
d) WRIT OF SUMMONS ( O.3 R1(C) LAG)
(3.) The defendant Abaya family is required under the Lagos State High Court rules to file its statement of defence within ___ days of the service of the originating process
a) 17 days
b) 21 days
c) 42 DAYS (O.15 R.(1)(2) LAG)
d) 45 days
(4.) If the action had been commenced in the High Court of the Federal Capital Territory. Your answer to question 13 above would have been:
a) 17 days
b) 21 days
c) 42 days
d) 14 DAYS(O.23 R.2(1) ABJ)
At exactly 9.00 am, the Honourable Justice Sandra Bloomberg commenced sitting. After a brief exchange of pleasantries with members of the Bar, she ordered the court registrar to call the first case on the: 1. ______. It was 2.______ for interlocutory injunction. The 3._____ was absent as he had not been served with the processes. The matter was therefore 4. _____
(5.) 1._______
a) course list
b) curse list
c) cost list
d) CAUSE LIST
(6.) 2.______
a) An originating summons
b) an originating motion
c) a motion ex-parte
d) A MOTION ON NOTICE
(7.) 3._____
a) Petitioner
b) co-respondent
c) appellant
d) NONE OF THE ABOVE
(8.) 4. _______
a) struck out
b) ADJOURNED
c) DISMISSED
d) non-suited
The High Court of Lagos State declined jurisdiction in a suit filed by Social Rights Initiative (NGO) and two other persons against the Attorney General of the Federation and the Central Bank of Nigeria challenging the Federal Government decision to change the One Thousand Naira note to a coin.
(9.) The most probable reason why the court declined jurisdiction in the above case is that:
a) The matter ought to have been commence at the Federal High Court
b) Jurisdiction of the National Industrial court
c) The matter was commenced in the wrong judicial division
d) THE MATTER FALLS WITHIN THE EXCLUSIVE JURISDICTION OF THE FEDERAL HIGH COURT (S.251(1)(D) CFRN 1999)
(10.) The ruling in the above case is regarded in law as:
a) Interlocutory application
b) INTERLOCUTORY DECISION
c) Final ruling
d) Final decision
(11.) Assuming in the above ruling the court had assumed jurisdiction, it will be regarded as:
a) Final ruling
b) Interlocutory decision
c) Final decision
d) INTERLOCUTORY RULING
12. All but one of the following is correct
a) The frontloading system saves cost
b) The front loading system makes for quick dispensation of justice
c) Front loading system acts as a catalyst for resorting to ADR
d) FRONT LOADING SYSTEM EFFECTUATES SPRINGING OF SURPRISES ON OPPOSING PARTIES.
13. One of the following cannot be compelled to give evidence in Court
a) Mr Oladimeji Bankole, speaker, House of Assembly
b) Haija Turai Yar’adua
c) Mrs Shola Obada, Deputy Governor of Osun State
d) Former vice president, Atiku Abubakar.
14. All but one of the following is incorrect
a) A DISCHARGED BANKRUPT IS DISQUALIFIED FROM CONTESTING ELECTION IN NIGERIA
b) A lunatic cannot contest election in Nigeria
c) A candidate for governorship election must be a citizen of Nigeria
d) A person under a sentence of imprisonment for an offence involving dishonesty or fraud cannot contest for election in Nigeria.
15. The Undefended List in Abuja is commenced by filling:
a) Writ of summons, ex parte motion and affidavit
b) Writ of summons, motion on notice and supporting affidavit
c) WRIT OF SUMMONS AND AFFIDAVIT (O.21R1(1) ABJ)
d) None of the above
Mrs, Daniel married Mr, Okon Daniel on 31st January 2009 at the FCT Marriage Registry. Shortly thereafter, Mr. Okon Daniel got to know that his wife was already three months pregnant for her ex-boyfriend, Mr, Peter. Mr. Okon Daniel was very upset. Answer the following question.
16. The marriage between Mr. Daniel and Mrs Daniel is best described as:
a) VOIDABLE MARRIAGE(S5(1)(D);37 MCA)
b) Customary marriage
c) Void marriage
d) Illegal marriage
17. Mr. Okon Daniel intends to file a petition against Mrs. Okon Daniel. The documents his ought to accompany this petition are:
a) Notice of petition, marriage certificate, answer and verifying affidavit.
b) Notice of petition, Registrar’s certificate and verifying affidavit
c) ACKNOWLEDGMENT NOTICE, MARRIAGE CERTIFICATE, VERIFYING AFFIDAVIT, AND NOTICE OF PETITION.
d) Certificate relating to reconciliation, marriage certificate, notice of petition, and verifying affidavit
Chief Mrs Onile is the owner of the building at no 2, Folashade Street, Onikan Lagos which was let to medical equipment limited under a yearly tenancy which commenced on the 1st of January, 2001 at the rate of N11 million. The last rent paid by the company was in respect of year 2010. You have now been briefed by Chief Mrs Onile to recover the premises from the company.
18. In order to validly determine the tenancy, a notice to quit served on the company on the 31st August, 2012 must ask the company to give up possession on or before______
a) 31st December, 2012
b) 31st December, 2013
c) 28TH FEBRUARY, 2013
d) 31st July, 2013
19. If judgment is entered in favour of your client in the case but the tribunal/court fails to specify the time within which the company must give up possession, you cannot enforce the judgment until the expiration of:
a) 3 days after the judgment
b) 7 days after the judgment
c) 14 DAYS AFTER THE JUDGMENT
d) 21 days after the judgment
20. All but one of the following is incorrect.
a) Nomenclature of parties depends on the type of action and the rules of court.
b) A PERSON CAN BE PLAINTIFF AND DEFENDANT IN THE SAME ACTION
c) In interlocutory applications parties are referred to as applicant and respondent.
d) Mistake in stating correct names of the parties is not fatal to the case.
NAME........................................................................................................................................
EXTERNSHIP LOCATION.................................................................................................................................
PHONE NUMBER....................................................................................
THANKS FOR TAKING THE TEST…………….. WE ARE SURE YOU DID A GOOD JOB………….WE LOVE YOU!!!
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